Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: A Pre-test Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ The Neuse River is considered a system because it involves components that influence each other irreversibly. specifically interacting biotic components that influence each other . interacting abiotic components. components that interact and influence one another through material or energy change. Components that influence one another only through the water. ____ Native Americans on the Great Plains were responsible for the expansion of the tallgrass prairie. had hunted the passenger pigeon to extinction by the 1880’s. had hunted the American bison to extinction by the 1880’s. used fire to burn the tallgrass prairie. were completely gone by the 1600’s. ____ Evidence of biodiversity is seen in the genetic variation among human populations. number of species in a region. number of ecosystems and habitats in a region. variety of nutrients available in a region. All of these answers are correct. ____ Twenty square kilometers is equal to _____ hectares. (1 hectare = 10,000 m2) 20,000 200 2000 200,000 40 ____ The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is increasing in part due to fossil fuel use. has not significantly changed in the past 200 years. is increasing in part due to deforestation. has been decreasing since the 1800’s. both a and c. ____ Human population today is closest to 3 billion. 5 billion. 6 billion. 7 billion. 12 billion. 1 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Natural experiments lack any basis for comparison. an exact replication of the experiment. similar constants. a dependent variable. All of these answers are correct. ____ When studies are done to determine the effect of pesticides on humans, human subjects are used to test the pesticides. the health of similar groups of people who have not been exposed to the pesticides are used as a basis for comparison. it is very difficult to find more than a single person exposed. higher primates are tested because their systems are close to those of humans. Both a and b. ____ The study of environmental science differs from study of the natural sciences such as biology and chemistry because it doesn’t encourage critical thinking. isn’t included in most institutions of higher learning. involves politics, law and economics. eliminates the consideration of physics. doesn’t take into account the scientific process. ____ The study of a system in the context of environmental science may involve predator-prey relationships. energy exchange. only relationships of biological components to one another. only relationships of biological and non-biological components. a and b. ____ Matter is anything that has volume and mass. anything that has energy. anything that doesn’t have mass. anything that doesn’t have volume. None of these answers are correct. ____ Mass is exactly the same thing as weight. a force. different on the moon than it is on Earth. a measure of the amount of matter something contains. the result of gravity. ____ Bases contribute _____ to a solution. negative hydroxide ions positive hydrogen ions nitrate ions neither hydrogen nor hydroxide ions Both a and b are correct. 2 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ According to the law of conservation of matter, I.matter can be created II.matter cannot be destroyed III.after a chemical reaction, the original atoms remain I only. II only. III only. I and II. II and III. Figure 3-1 ____ Use Figure 3-1. Which of the organisms above would occupy the lowest trophic level? Hyena Cheetah Vulture Giraffe Lion ____ Which stage of the hydrologic cycle can be the most direct cause of algal blooms? Evaporation Precipitation Transpiration Infiltration Runoff 3 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ What is the major source of phosphorus on land? Deposition from atmospheric phosphorus Compounds that are formed by autotrophs during photosynthesis Compounds released from the weathering of rocks Compounds formed from bacterial conversion Compounds dissolved in precipitation ____ What is the best explanation for the high amounts of rain that occur at the equator? This area experiences a high amount of wind, which leads to storms and rain This area has a large amount of water, leading to more rain The warm air rises at the equator which condenses at a high altitude, leading to rain The low pressure system that develops here causes warm air to sink, leading to rain As the air rises, it becomes warmer, leading to more rain ____ What is the cause of the differing seasons of the Earth? The different distances of the Earth to the sun based on the elliptical orbit The different lengths of the day during summer and winter The Coriolis Effect The tilt of the Earth on its axis The speed of the orbit of the Earth around the sun 4 Name: ______________________ ID: A Figure 4-5 ____ Use Figure 4-5. In the diagram above, at what locations is water sinking? I. 1 II. 2 III. 4 I only II only III only II and III I and II ____ The rain shadow effect can have a large effect on local climate. When the rain shadow effect is occurring, which side of the mountain tends to receive more rain? Windward side Leeward side Top of the mountain Foot of the mountain Side of the mountain that does not face the ocean 5 Name: ______________________ ID: A Figure 4-10 ____ Use Figure 4-10. Which zone in the diagram above is home to some decomposers, but no producers? A B C D E 6 Name: ______________________ ID: A Figure 5-2 ____ Use Figure 5-2. In the diagram, which pair of organisms shares the closest evolutionary relationship? Lancelet and lizard Chipmunk and lancelet Lancelet and trout Lizard and chipmunk Lamprey and lizard ____ Which of the following statements about mutations is incorrect? All mutations are harmful A mutation is a change in an organism’s DNA Many mutations cause the offspring to die before they are born Mutations may be caused by environmental factors such as UV radiation Mutations may lead to greater genetic diversity ____ When part of one chromosome breaks off and reattaches to another chromosome, this is known as: A mutation Reattachment disorder Natural selection Recombination Genetic merging 7 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Which of the following would be the best example of an individual’s phenotype? Having two recessive genes for blue eyes Having one dominant gene for brown eyes and one recessive gene for blue eyes Having two dominant genes for brown eyes Having a mutated gene for eye color Having brown eyes ____ Which of the following would have the least effect on how successful a species is at adapting to a new environment? Population size Generation time Amount of parental care Genetic variation Rate of environmental change ____ Which of the following is true? Under ideal conditions, bacteria and eagle populations both grow exponentially. Populations of bacteria, which grow much faster than eagles, show exponential growth, whereas populations of eagles do not. Because eagles grow to a larger size than bacteria, they have a J-shaped growth curve. The growth curve of bacteria is never constrained by K. Eagles are r-selected species while bacteria are usually K-selected species. ____ Which of the following statements BEST describes the reason why bright coloration is an effective defense against predators? The predators are color-blind and cannot see the prey. The predators can see the color and, either through natural selection, (if the prey is toxic) or learning (if the prey is merely unpalatable), avoid the prey. Predatory animals cannot learn anything; thus color is unimportant. Symbiosis allows predators to coexist with prey so that neither goes extinct. Commensal relationships such as this are the result of coevolution. ____ At present, Earth’s human population is stable. declining. increasing exponentially. increasing at a constant rate. increasing at about 10% per year. ____ Urban populations represent approximately ____ % of the world population, but consume ____ % of the world’s resources 10;25 10; 50 25; 50 50; 50 50; 75 8 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ A country has a growth rate of 0.2%, a TFR of 2.6, and a net migration rate of -8. What is most likely true of this country? The population will likely decrease over time. The population will likely grow for a few generations before stabilizing. The population will likely grow for a few generations before shrinking. The population will likely increase at a steady rate. There is not enough information to tell. Figure 7-1 ____ Use Figure 7-1. Population A is most likely rapidly growing. growing, but very slowly. stable. going to decline in a few decades. There is not enough information to tell. ____ The core of the earth is approximately ____ 2000 miles 2000 km 3000 miles 3000 km none of these answers are correct. below the earth’s surface. 9 Name: ______________________ ID: A Figure 8-3 ____ Use Figure 8-3. Using the soil triangle above, what is the percentage of sand, silt, and clay at Point A? 40% sand, 20% silt, 40% clay 40% sand, 30% silt, 10% clay 30% sand, 40% silt, 30% clay 40% sand, 40% silt, 20% clay 35% sand, 35% silt, 30% clay ____ Ores may form When igneous rock is deposited. As a precipitate when magma comes into contact with water. In veins. As a result of physical separation from other materials. All of these answers are correct. ____ A cone of depression may develop where artesian wells are common. if groundwater is deep. where groundwater is abundant. in areas adjacent to a deep well from which a great deal of water is rapidly pumped. only in unconfined aquifers. 10 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Oligotrophic lakes are synonymous with eutrophic lakes. contain many fish because they are free of pollutants. are polluted by nitrogen and phosphorous. have low productivity due to low amounts of nutrients. are the result of flooding. ____ Eutrophic lakes have very low productivity as a result of acid rain. have very high productivity as a result of high levels of nutrients. have low nutrient levels. are formed by glaciers. usually have absolutely no fish. Figure 9-2 ____ Use Figure 9-2. According to the figure above, water availability per capita throughout North Africa is approximately 15,000-70,000 m3 per capita per year. 6,000-15,000 m3 per capita per year. 1,700-2,500 m3 per capita per year. 1,000-1,700 m3 per capita per year. 0-1,000 m3 per capita per year. 11 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ An old showerhead typically used 150 L of water for a 10-minute shower. Reduced-flow showerheads that meet federal standards changed this water usage to _____ L for the same 10 minute shower. 145 130 120 95 50 ____ Restrictions on the use of gray water in California were made stronger due to fears about wastewater. were reduced in 2009 due to drought. require that gray water is used for all lawn watering. prohibit gray water use for washing cars. have not yet been considered. ____ If a farmer overgrazes his sheep in a common pasture the end result is more harm than benefit. This example BEST demonstrates urban blight. an environmental externality. the invisible hand. The Hardin effect. free market enterprise. ____ Induced demand, as it relates to urban sprawl, can best be described as A positive feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services away from an urban center A negative feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services away from an urban center A positive feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services toward an urban center A negative feedback loop involving the migration of goods and services toward an urban center A positive feedback loop involving the use of tax revenue to build roads which leads to urban exodus ____ Public lands in the US are categorized for use based on the managing agency. In general US Forestry Service (USFS) lands are used for Grazing, mining, timber harvesting, and recreation Timber harvesting, grazing, and recreation Recreation and conservation Wildlife conservation, hunting, and recreation Primarily preservation ____ Transit Oriented Development that seeks to move away from current transportation trends would likely include all of the following EXCEPT Bicycle racks Light rail system with frequent stops in high density development Wide, attractive sidewalks Multiple parking lots in high density developments Special lanes for bicycles and other alternative modes of transportation 12 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Eminent Domain is a tool that can be used to assist in smart growth. This tool allows Citizens to sue the government if they feel that they are being ignored Citizens to sue the government if they feel that government practices are leading directly to urban blight Governments to force land use restrictions on citizens to prevent urban blight Governments to force land use restrictions on citizens to prevent any environmental problems (per the National Environmental Protection Act, NEPA) Governments to acquire land at fair market value even if the owner does not wish to sell it ____ The most difficult part of integrating TOD (Transportation Oriented Development) into existing urban settings is Urbanites in developed areas already have a sense of identity and place that doesn’t include mass transit Urban areas rarely have infrastructure that can handle the rigors of mass transit Existing suburb-to-suburb routes do not lend themselves well to mass transit Mass transit is just not economically feasible in high population density urban environments It will lead to a decrease in tax revenues, service fees will increase, and people will abandon the urban centers ____ A management system that includes fire suppression will likely lead to I. Large quantities of biomass accumulating on the forest floor II. An increase in the likelihood of uncontrolled natural fires III. Increase in fire-dependent species I only I and II I and III II and III I,II, and III 13 Name: ______________________ ID: A Figure 10-2 ____ Use Figure 10-2. The U.S. has a total land area of about 980,000,000 hectares. Approximately how many hectares are used for cropland? 9,800,000 hectares 19,600,000 hectares 98,000,000 hectares 196,000,000 hectares 245,000,000 hectares ____ Development that builds on vacant lots within cities rather than expanding into new land outside the city is known as Infill Transit-oriented development Multi-use zoning Urban sprawl Induced demand ____ Synthetic fertilizers have many advantages over traditional “organic” animal waste fertilizers. These include all of the following EXCEPT: Ease of application Highly adjustable nutrient content Bioavailability of nutrients Lack of nutrient runoff problems Highly concentrated when produced 14 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Some scientists want to genetically modify crops for pest resistance. Possible strategies include insertion of the ____ gene from ____ PGlow; Aquia victoria Bt; Bacillus thuringiensis Sonic Hedgehog; Escherichia coli STx1; E. Coli Roundup ready; Conyza biotypes ____ Under what conditions do nomadic grazing and shifting agriculture work? Large human populations where economy of scale works in their favor Large human populations where conventional agriculture can be applied more easily Small human populations where subsistence farming is used Small populations where conventional agriculture is used Nomadic grazing and shifting agriculture cannot work due to the negative environmental impacts that they have ____ The average food item in the US travels ____ km from harvest to table 500 1000 1500 2000 2500 15 Name: ______________________ ID: A Figure 11-3 ____ Use Figure 11-3. For which type of food production are the calories of energy inputs about equal to the calories of food produced? Grass-fed beef Large-scale corn Hunting and gathering Far-offshore fishing Coastal fishing 16 Name: ______________________ ID: A Figure 12-3 [Source: http://www.eia.doe.gov/oiaf/1605/ggccebro/chapter1.html] ____ Use Figure 12-3. In the production of electricity, which of the following fossil fuel types produces the lowest ratio of percent resulting CO2 emissions to percent consumption? Natural gas Coal Petroleum Not enough information is given to determine the answer. The ratios are the same for all fuel types. ____ In the United States, which sector utilizes the most energy? transportation industry domestic exports electricity generation ____ The United States imports approximately what percent of its energy needs? 3% 10% 23% 30% 40% 17 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ The countries with the largest supplies of coal are China, Indonesia, United States, India India, Brazil, Russia, China Russia, Indonesia, China, Brazil Canada, South Africa, Russia China, United States, Russia, India ____ The countries currently producing the largest amounts of coal are Canada, United States, China China, India, Canada United States, Canada, India United States, India, China Russia, India, China ____ The environmental costs associated with CTL, liquefied coal, include all of the following except lower greenhouse emissions than regular coal, but more than petroleum large demand for water large demand for energy needed to process coal land degradation in the United States trace metals released during combustion of CTL ____ For how many half-lives do spent fuel rods remain a threat to human health? at least 2 at least 5 at least 8 at least 10 Once they are spent, fuel rods are no longer dangerous. ____ Which type of electricity generating power plant regularly releases toxic metals such as mercury and lead into the atmosphere? nuclear power plant coal fired power plant natural gas fired power plant petroleum fired power plant all of the above regularly release mercury and lead into the atmosphere ____ An electric company’s tiered rate system charges customers increasingly higher rates for less renewable resources different rates based on the square footage of their dwelling lower rates for first increments of energy and higher rates as the usage goes up different rates based on high peak events increasingly higher rates for renewable resources ____ Which of the following tends to be problematic for run-of-the-river generation stations? intermittent electricity generation seasonal changes in river flow high environmental costs silting of the reservoirs high flow rates 18 Name: ______________________ ID: A Figure 13-2 Where Does My Money Go? The annual energy bill for a typical single home is approximately $2,200. ____ Use Figure 13-2. If a typical home was able to cut its heating costs by 25%, about how much money would it save per year? $15.95 $85.35 $159.50 $550.00 $638.00 ____ Put the items below in correct sequence for the generation of electricity using the wind 1 – generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy 2 – wind turns the wind turbine blade 3 – the gear box transfers mechanical energy to the generator 4 – electricity is transferred to the grid 1-2-3-4 2-1-3-4 2-3-1-4 2-4-3-1 4-2-3-1 ____ What form of energy production can potentially compete with food resources for a community? geothermal energy solar energy tidal power hydroelectric power biomass 19 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Dead zones, such as the one in the Gulf of Mexico that exists off the coast of Louisiana, are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a reduced number of shellfish fish die-off events low oxygen concentrations in the water low nitrogen concentrations a reduced number of marine plant species ____ Put the events leading to cultural eutrophication in the correct order. W – leaching of nutrients from fertilized agricultural lands X - fish die-off Y - algal bloom W->X->Y W->Y->X X->Y->W X->W->Y Y->X->W ____ The most prevalent way to treat human waste in rural areas where a large amount of land is available is septic systems sewage treatment plants manure lagoons stormwater drainage systems collective ponds ____ To decrease the likelihood of cultural eutrophication from the effluent released from a water treatment facility, sewage plants may include a secondary treatment of using bacteria to breakdown algae secondary treatment of using ozone for disinfection secondary treatment of removing nitrogen and phosphorous tertiary treatment of removing nitrogen and phosphorous tertiary treatment of using bacteria to breakdown algae ____ A low pH in water bodies can result from all of the following EXCEPT passing water through limestone treatment facilities acid rain flooded, abandoned underground mines mountaintop mining acid snow ____ Methods used to remove spilled oil from the surface of the ocean include I. containment boom and oil vacuums II. chemical dispersants III. large screens I only II only I and II only I and III only I, II, and III 20 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ The VOC that is common in particle board and carpeting glue and is dangerous to human health is/are hydrocarbons formaldehyde Radon-222 Asbestos CFC’s ____ A phenomenon associated with the buildup of toxic compounds and pollutants in an airtight space is known as sealed building syndrome synthetic building syndrome sick building syndrome sick worker syndrome insulated building sick worker syndrome ____ When conducting a life-cycle analysis of manufactured goods which of the following would NOT be considered? the amount of raw material required the amount of energy needed to transport the material the amount of money the end product will cost the chemicals used in the manufacture of the goods the disposal of the product ____ Which of the following best explains why the recycling of plastic is an example of open-loop recycling? Manufacturers may use a lesser amount of material for newer products. Plastic bottles can be melted down and then used in the production of new bottles. Plastic bottles can be recycled and used in the production of different plastic products. Recycling plastic reduces the need for the raw material. Plastic products can be used repeatedly before disposal. ____ A landfill in Minnesota receives an average of 50 cm of rainfall per year. 60 percent of the water runs off the landfill. The landfill has a surface area of 5000 m2. The leachate from the landfill is treated for cadmium and other toxic metals. The present leachate collection system is 80% efficient. What is the volume of leachate that is treated per year? 1600 m3 1000 m3 960 m3 800 m3 200 m3 ____ According to the EPA, about 40 million U.S. tons of hazardous waste is produced each year. If individual household waste makes up 1.6 million tons of this waste, what percent of the total hazardous amount produced is household waste? 0.04% 0.03% 0.25% 2.5% 4% 21 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Items to be considered in a life-cycle analysis include all of the following EXCEPT: the amount of energy needed to transport the material to a waste site the product’s aesthetic value the amount of raw material needed to produce the product the tipping fees when disposing the material the toxic aspects of the material once it becomes waste ____ All of the following are environmental costs of relying on sanitary landfills for waste handling EXCEPT: the amount of suitable land available for siting the release of fly ash into the atmosphere the release of methane gas into the atmosphere the potential for leaking of leachate the reliance on fossil fuels for transporting waste ____ All of the following are correct regarding Tuberculosis EXCEPT: many people world-wide are infected while not all have developed the disease the disease is associated with airborne transmission symptoms of the disease include weakness and coughing up blood inappropriate use of antibiotics has led to antibiotic resistant strains of the disease the disease mainly primarily affects the stomach ____ An advancement in medical research allows individuals infected with HIV/AIDS to lead longer lives due to the eradication of the virus in chimpanzees antiviral drugs that keep HIV populations in the body low antibiotics that cure the related pneumonia an isolation of the virus in primates antiviral drugs that work as a vaccine against AIDS ____ Studies that last for only 1 to 4 days in which scientists measure mortality of organisms as a response to a dose of a chemical are known as acute studies biomagnification studies prospective studies chronic studies retrospective studies ____ Malathion is an insecticide that is fairly widely used in the United States, with a half-life in the environment of 1 day. If 100 grams of malathion are released into the environment, about how much will remain after 4 days? 100 g 50 g 25 g 12.5 g 6.25 g 22 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Which of the following ecosystem types has only recently gained attention in the practice of conservation? tropical rain forests grasslands and prairies sensitive marine habitats red wood forests wetlands ____ Creating patchy forested habitat by fragmentation increases the potential for edge effect, which may impact songbird populations by: creating greater food availability reducing large mammalian predators increasing the potential for nest parasitism by species such as the brown headed cowbird increasing the impact of UV light damage on nest sites increasing gene flow ____ The primary reason for the overharvesting of species stems from: market demand for goods associated with a species apathy towards species conservation religious doctrine that poses man as superior lack of legislation forbidding harvesting lack of food support from the United Nations ____ In the United States, which agency is responsible for monitoring the import of threatened species as well as administering the Endangered Species Act? U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Environmental Protection Agency U.S. Forest Service The National Park Service The Sierra Club ____ The greatest threat to the northern spotted owl population is most likely: commercial salmon harvesting groups increased soil erosion into owl watering holes continued logging of old growth forests in the pacific northwest burning of coal in the Ohio river valley acid deposition ____ Which of the following phenomena is a major cause of increasing greenhouse gas production? a weakening economy leading to less efficient energy usage an increasing global population, which is also becoming increasingly affluent a more intense Atlantic hurricane seasons a thinning of stratospheric ozone causing an increase in UV radiation higher evaporation rates due to greater area of impervious surfaces 23 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ Which of the following choices represents the top three nations for per capita emission of carbon dioxide? Canada, China, United States Australia, United States, Canada United States, China, India China, Canada, United States United States, Russia, Australia Figure 19-1 ____ Use Figure 19-1. In the last 10 years, there has been a clear differentiation between northern and southern temperature increases. For the most recent data shown on the graph, the northern hemisphere increase is what percent of the southern temperature increase? 60% 75% 100% 130% 230% 24 Name: ______________________ ID: A ____ The loss of glaciers could directly cause: an increase in permafrost a decrease in storm intensity a lowering of the mosquito line in highland areas a decline in seasonal drinking water supplies an increase in water filtration capabilities ____ Ocean currents are major heat distribution mechanisms for the planet and thus have a large impact on regional climate. Of the following events, which would be most likely to disrupt the thermohaline cycling of ocean currents, causing much of Europe to experience much colder temperatures? coral bleaching releasing carbonate into the water increased whale harvests removing radiant loss from mammals melting of Greenland ice sheets addition of salt run-off from salinized middle eastern soil reduced continental run-off of fresh water stimulated by drought conditions ____ On a supply and demand graph, the point at which the amount of a good supplied is the same as the amount of demand for that good is called: the price point a shortage point the equilibrium point the surplus point an externality ____ If supply is down in the face of increasing demand, we would expect to witness: boycotts a product shortage a product surplus embargo pressure decreased interest rates ____ Which piece of legislation focuses on preventing exposure to physical and chemical harms in the workplace? Clean Water Act Occupational Safety and Health Act Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act National Environmental Policy Act Clean Air Act 25 ID: A Pre-test Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Definitional ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Critical thinking ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Critical thinking ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Critical thinking ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Critical thinking ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Critical thinking ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Definitional ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Definitional ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Definitional ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking 1 ID: A ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: D MSC: Concept based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: D MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: D MSC: Fact based ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Critical thinking ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional 2 ID: A ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Critical thinking ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 3 Pre-test [Answer Strip] ID: A ID: A BEC _____ 7. _____14._____17. _____ 1.D _____ 8.B _____18.C _____ 2.A _____ 9.C _____19.D _____22.D _____ 3.E _____10.E _____20.B _____ 4.C _____11.A _____21.A _____ 5.C _____12.D _____15.D _____ 6.D _____13.A _____16.E Pre-test [Answer Strip] ID: A ID: A D _____23. A _____24. D _____25. E _____26. C _____27. A _____28. B _____29. C _____30. E _____31. A _____32. A _____33. D _____34. D _____35. E _____36. D _____37. D _____38. B _____39. E _____40. D _____41. B _____42. B _____43. E _____44. B _____45. D _____46. Pre-test [Answer Strip] _____47.E _____47.E _____53.B _____60.E ID: A _____48.C _____54.C _____61.D _____55.D _____62.A _____49.B _____63.D _____50.D _____57.A _____64.B _____51.A _____56.E _____58.B _____65.C _____52.D _____59.D _____66.A Pre-test [Answer Strip] ID: A ID: A DBBCB _____70._____76._____82._____88._____94. C _____67. C _____68. E _____69. B _____71. A _____72. D _____73. A _____74. C _____75. C _____77. C _____78. C _____79. D _____80. E _____81. B _____83. E _____84. B _____85. A _____86. E _____87. C _____89. A _____90. A _____91. C _____92. B _____93. D _____95. Pre-test [Answer Strip] ID: A ID: A D _____96. C _____97. C _____98. B _____99. B 100.